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One act = one crime = one penalty? And why does it matter?
2019-03-07 at 14:32 0

Image by geralt on pixabay

Law vs. math

In our everyday life, we tend to intuitively treat deeds of others depending on their quantity and quality. It is probably explicable in terms of sociology. For example, watch a great piece of a monologue by Tom Hanks in Steven Spielberg’s “Bridge of Spies” on 5 people being hit by a car and its insurance aftermath. Done watching? OK. As the law represents the societal point of view on reality, those intuitions are embedded in different legal concepts. In criminal we feel that if one commits several crimes should be treated differently than a person is committing only one. And here a million problems begin.
  • What is an act?
  • What are the criteria to determine if it is the same or another act?
  • What happens if an act meets elements of various offenses?
  • If there are undoubtedly several acts – how to impose a penalty?
  • How many penalties there should be in case of one or several acts? Etc.

Can 2=5? In math - no, in law - why not

Every legal system provides answers to all or almost all of the above questions. The answers may however vary. Every now and then we hear about a hard case in which the issue of multiplicity of counts and crimes occurs raising some intrasystemic questions. The most recent case is the tragedy which happened in Pittsburgh Synagogue (October 2018) when an anti-Semite shot and killed 11 people. What he did in the language of criminal law may be described in a variety of ways, highly depending on the legislation in the place of the perpetration. Killing 11 people may be either 11 separate crimes, one aggravated type of murder (e.g., killing multiple individuals by one act with premeditation) or one crime because of committing several killings in short time intervals with premeditated intent (continuous act theory) or it may constitute as many crimes as criminal provisions were met. The first is most basic and somehow intuitive, provided he fired a separate shot towards every single person is to claim that there were as many crimes as victims. It may be easily treated otherwise if facts are slightly modified. If one bullet penetrated A and also B eventually hitting C – undoubtedly one act led to the death of 3 individuals (there was one pulling of a trigger and one bullet flying). Another alternative – he used an automatic rifle and by one pressing of a trigger released dozens of bullets into the crowd leaving numerous casualties. Here we seem to have only one activity. Similarly, to the situation of a hand grenade being tossed into a small venue full of people. A single human activity is impossible to be divided or dissected into smaller parts. Theory of a continuous act stems from the above distinctions and accompanying intuitions. You commit a crime in a way it seems that you actually perform several acts, but it is only because you chose a particular modus operandi only because it is difficult or even impossible to execute your premeditated plan as smooth as desired (e.g. one has a Beretta instead of M-16 and wants to kill 30 people in a restaurant).  However, it may as well have an unambiguous effect on the scope of criminal liability. If there is a crime of aggravated murder provided by the law combining “regular” murders into one, it may result in more severe liability. But if there is no distinction in this area (only a regular type murder) such an operation acts to the benefit of a perpetrator because he will not be charged with several murders but one “continuous” one. As you may see, it all depends on the normative context.

One act described from various perspectives

Let’s go back to the most straightforward scenario – 11 shots = 11 deaths. What if there are other elements of other crimes which the firing meets? We may read that the Pittsburgh shooter was charged with (:
  • Eleven counts of obstruction of free exercise of religious beliefs resulting in death;
  • Eleven counts of use and discharge of a firearm to commit murder during and in relation to a crime of violence;
  • Two counts of obstruction of free exercise of religious beliefs involving an attempt to kill and use of a dangerous weapon and resulting in bodily injury;
  • Eleven counts of use and discharge of a firearm during and in relation to a crime of violence;
  • Eight counts of obstruction of free exercise of religious beliefs involving an attempt to kill and use of a dangerous weapon, and resulting in bodily injury to a public safety officer; and
  • One count of obstruction of free exercise of religious beliefs involving the use of a dangerous weapon and resulting in bodily injury to a public safety officer."
If found guilty of all counts, the suspect faces a chance of the death penalty or a life sentence without parole followed by 535 years in prison. That shows another issue here. Counts (units of prosecution?) do not reflect the actual number of human acts. They represent a purely normative approach to an act as a basis for criminal liability. Thus, in legal language artificially there are as many acts as results or norms broken, etc. Why does it even matter? Well, it makes criminal trial (if there is one at all) less complicated in establishing what criminal evaluation shall reflect the perpetrator. We know precisely what norms have been broken and just apply them all. But you may find other ways to solve that issue. For example, in California Criminal Code we may read in art. 654 that
“An act or omission that is punishable in different ways by different provisions of law shall be punished under the provision that provides for the longest potential term of imprisonment, but in no case shall the act or omission be punished under more than one provision. An acquittal or conviction and sentence under any one bars a prosecution for the same act or omission under any other.”
It resembles in a way also Polish Criminal Code in its fundamental declaration in art. 11 that
“§ 1. The same act may constitute only a single crime.2. If an act fulfills the elements provided for in two or more provisions of a criminal statute, the court imposes the conviction for a single crime based on all concurring provisions.3. In the situation referred to in § 2, the court imposes a penalty according to the provision prescribing the most severe penalty, yet that does not impede the imposition of other measures prescribed by any of the concurring statutory provisions.”
This sort of regulation seems closer to the ontological approach to an act. We, of course, put a normative perspective on reality, but first we need to correctly describe the reality. Eventually you will be punished only for the most severe crime as the statutory scope of the penalty reflects the need for punishment. Once. Period.

Substantive law meets procedure and they have an argument

However, some significant issues arise with substantive criminal law intersecting with procedural law. The prosecution must describe the activity(-is) which are to be deemed as criminal and result in the indictment. So, despite the above-mentioned normative solutions, it is the prime role of the prosecution to decide what would be the object of the investigation/case. It may be either difficult or easy, depending on the crime in question. Possession of prohibited items may be relatively uncomplicated to deal with – in most cases it should be deemed as constituting only one (lasting) crime (look into U.S.C. 1522). But another statistically common crime – larceny – may pose unexpected difficulties. Similar to shooting – one may decide to steal from a store in several installments (during one heist) because the desired amount of i.a. electronics including TVs and laptops exceeds his carrying abilities. So, he must go back and forth 5 times until the car is loaded. Technically each act of taking others’ property meets the elements of a criminal act of larceny (I believe that theft is described similar everywhere). Is it thus legitimate to claim that he committed 5 separate crimes? We can make it more complex by tweaking the case a little bit – let’s say that every time in order to take tablets he must break some protective cabinet glass. Can we say he committed a total of 10 crimes – 5 thefts and 5 crimes of intentional destruction of property? Dear prosecution – good luck!

Law vs. reality

It is not that there are some objective truths with respect to this area of criminal law. Many normative solutions stem from historical and cultural backgrounds strengthening a particular way of perceiving reality. But there for sure need to be some rational limits to the artificial description of reality for the purpose of applying the criminal law. If the law must reflect out ideas of the real world, it should not provide concepts transparently inconsistent with common sense.    
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In your face (ID)!
2018-10-04 at 12:28 0

foto by freepik.com

The manufacturer of your brand new, shiny, geeky smartphone promised that their fingerprint or face sensor is the gamechanger in digital security? Unhackable encryption? Great! But does the law provides you with the same confidence? Well, let's see...

Old laws in a brave new world

Every now and then we hear that judiciary comes across an issue which tests old laws in the new reality (see criminalfuture.com, a blog of my colleague Kamil Mamak). Some of them may seem a little bit sci-fi and are often deemed as pure academic abstract thinking. However, there are those that somewhat resemble traditional, analog and well-known problems but display them in a slightly different light. We like to call it a step-by-step adaptation of law. It is nothing revolutionary rather evolutionary. Stealing money from a bank is a crime regardless if they are paper bills or piece of code on bank servers. Property may be virtual etc. The subject of our deliberation changes parallel to the evolving technology and culture. That is rather obvious. We think that the issue of using fingerprints (like Apple’s Touch ID) or facial recognition (Face ID)  to access the encrypted content of your phone or computer (see generally Efren Lemus,When Fingerprints Are Key: Reinstating Privacy to the Privilege Against Self-Incrimination in Light of Fingerprint Encryption in Smartphones, 70 SMU L. Rev. 533 (2017)  who has done a great job showing the problem in the US perspective) arises as one of the best examples of a questionable step-by-step adaptation. Thus, it causes a little bit of disturbance in the force. Here is why.

Testimony v. surrender

The prohibition against self-incrimination is one of the most paramount principles of civilized criminal procedures. It may be either explicitly provided in a constitution (or other supreme laws) like in the 5th Amendment to the US Constitution (“No person (…) shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself”) or in a very general way like some other constitution of continental Europe or the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (ECHR) in art. 6 provide -  as a broad right to a fair trial. Those laws undergo interpretation, and until now it seems to be rather a consistent path of understanding the nemo tenetur se ipsum accusare (“no one shall be forced to incriminate themselves”) principle to distinguish “testimony” from “surrendering.”  As we may find in cases regarding providing information to law enforcement, both – US courts and the European Court of Human Rights, they tend to come to similar conclusions – one may not be forced to provide testimony regarding their potential criminal liability. It means that they may not be expected to be actively participating, in factfinding against them in the form of providing information. They may remain silent. That is the minimum standard (see application no 18731/91, John Murray v. the UK, application no 34720/97, Heaney and McGuinness v. the UK). Can they lie? “No” – according to the US law and “probably not, at least it is not the part of the right to fair trial” according to the European Court. However, it looks totally different when a person is demanded to hand over some items, like documents, blood samples, voice samples or fingerprints. Here we are dealing with “surrendering” evidence which is not testimonial or communicative in nature, but exists in external reality. Nobody is thus compelled to disclose their knowledge or as once poetically stated “contents of their mind” (see i.a. Fisher v. the United States, 425 U.S. 391, 411 (1976), United States v. Dionisio, 410 U.S. 1, 7 (1973) , Doe v. the United States, 487 U.S. 201 (1988), Gilbert v. California, 388 U.S. 263, 266–67 (1967), Holt v. the United States, 218 U.S. 245, 252–53 (1910)). The same rationale has been accepted by the European Court investigating potential breaches of fair trial guarantees embodied in art. 6 of the Convention. In Saunders v The United Kingdom (Application no. 19187/91) the Court stated – “The right not to incriminate oneself (…) does not extend to the use in criminal proceedings of material which may be obtained from the accused through the use of compulsory powers but which has an existence independent of the will of the suspect such as, inter alia, documents acquired pursuant to a warrant, breath, blood and urine samples and bodily tissue for the purpose of DNA testing.”.

So – where is the problem? - one may ask

It is all about the modern era and the digital revolution happening around. We become more and more “welded” to our mobile devices which contain a majority of important information we require to survive every day. Bank apps, calendars, all sorts of communication, photos, etc. are enclosed in a smartphone or even a smartwatch (see David Chalmers TEDx Sydney Is your phone part of your mind?  ). It has been raised that we even start to face digital dementia which compromises some of our cognitive functions (mainly short-term memory). Moreover, the overwhelming nature of everyday functioning requires us to convey part of our knowledge to software. Provided that you treat your security and privacy seriously, you use at least 8-characters-random-passwords containing special characters, etc. Of course, a different password to a different service. It is rather obvious that you are not able to memorize all of that. Especially when, due to the growing need for encryption more and more simple apps or services require some sort of passcode. Considering all that, we tend to either use “remember my password” function in our web browser as well as stream all passcodes to fingerprint or face recognition sensor. Can you imagine putting complicated at-least-8-characters passcode to your smartphone every time you want to interact with it? Then another time a different one for your bank and another for Facebook etc.? It is not a matter of laziness but simply of human limitations.

Why do the above matters?

Contrary to the European Court, the issue of compelling a person to provide a fingerprint to unlock a phone has been already tackled by the US courts. The result of which is rather an adaptation of the “independent or external existence” doctrine providing that like blood sample or document, compelling someone to touch a sensor or look into a phone - does not violate the 5th Amendment. (see Commonwealth v. Baust, 89 Va. Cir. 267, the United States v. Kirschner, 823 F. Supp. 2d 665, 669). Can we adaptatively apply laws regarding physical key to Touch ID or Face ID? Isn’t there something significantly differentiating those ways of providing access to a secret? Fingerprinting traditionally in law has been a method of identifying a person and determining whether they were at a particular venue or touched something. Photography of one’s face serves the identical aim – identification of a person. Nowadays however they may bear much more functions, one of which is a biometric passcode. As K. J. O’Brien stated „people are born with fingers whereas physical keys exist independently of one’s body and require a separate acquisition. Fingers should not be physical master keys available to the government whenever it asks.” The issue becomes even more critical with one’s face. It is rather difficult to make it not available to others who may use it for infringing our privacy. Do you remember those movies when a villain pokes someone’s eye to use it to open a door guarded by a retina scanner? Not pretty, right? It seems reasonable to claim that nowadays fingerprints and face are equivalent to one’s memory. They are simply an extension of our capabilities to unlock things. Of course, because our thoughts are our most intimate and private value, it is impossible to take them away without our will. But considering the historical background of nemo se ipsum principle, it all was aimed to protect us and our dignity from the ruthless violence of the government trying to control every piece of information. Now we are kind of forced to transplant part of our thoughts to the machine not because we like to do it (like writing a memoir) but we would simply cease functioning efficiently in the modern world when limiting the scope of our interactions with society. That is why we think that there cannot be a simple adaptation of old laws to the modern issues in the above-described area. We see a clear-cut difference between thoughts and their substantivities. But the broader social context has brought us to a moment where they are mandatory not only an option. So, the argument against adaptation lays on a different level that it seems.

PS.

As a rather sad post scriptum, we feel obliged to present a secret option no. 3 where nothing actually remains protected. In an English case R v S (F) [2008] EWCA Crim 2177, [2009] 1 WLR 1489 it was elaborated that every passcode exists separately from one’s memory (it must have been copied to the computer in order to verify if it matches the password put in). But there is more to that – section 53 of Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (England) provides the following crime: “A person to whom a section 49 notice (demand to provide a passcode to a computer – WZ. A.W.) has been given is guilty of an offense if he knowingly fails, in accordance with the notice, to make the disclosure required by virtue of the giving of the notice”. The penalties vary but may amount up to 5 years of imprisonment. …
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Jurassic World and criminal causation
2018-09-20 at 16:07 0

Just to waive any responsibility to the Readers – there will be spoilers from Jurassic World: Fallen Kingdom. If you have not yet seen the movie – please do and then return to (hopefully) share the below-described concerns.

Dino-facts (spoilers)

Recently I have watched the second installment of a blockbuster Jurassic World – JW: Fallen Kingdom. Contrary to really fun and classic-references one might find in the first movie, the plot of the second one was frankly speaking - ridiculous. See the very apt summary of How It Should Have Ended. What however made it somewhat interesting was the scope of criminal liability of its main characters – Owen Grady and Claire Deary. Fast-forwarding to… last quarter of so of the movie. The dinosaurs have been hauled to a private mansion of John Hammond’s business associate (somewhere in the continental USA) and being auctioned by the Evil Guys. Of course, everything goes south, and dinosaurs which were not sold are contained in a relatively tight dungeon while toxic gas is filing the premises. Provided that someone opens the main gate and release them outside – they will perish. After heartbreaking deliberations, our heroes – Owen and Claire partake in the release (the Button is however pushed by a 10 or so year old Maisie). This is when the (criminal) fun begins. Just after few minutes of their freedom carnivory (allosaurus?) immediately eats the Bad Guy. Then they run into the woods. We also see that for sure Blue (velociraptor) and the T-Rex are on the run and reach a populated area. Considering all the movies from the franchise – it may be implied that they will hunt big time.

Criminal liability - causation and mental state

Now to the gist – when they kill someone (like the Bad Guy) while they are in the wild – shall Owen and Claire (we leave aside the 10-year-old) bear criminal liability for those deaths? If so, two issues immediately appear:  
  • will that be murder (they for sure saw the ultimate probability of those animals being lethal as hell, regardless of what they accepted the risk),
  • for how long shall they bear the liability for individual deaths? Unless the carnivores are killed or hunted down – they will continue to hunt themselves. They may appear every like 3 months and hunt a person somewhere in the US.
  The dinosaur case however theoretical, it may have a very obvious practical counterpart – when someone releases (intentionally or negligently) a dangerous animal (a tiger or king cobra) in a populated area. The crime of murder in every legal system is designed in a similar or even identical way and serves one major purpose – to punish people for killing others. Simultaneously it bears another message to the public – “nobody is allowed to kill another person.” What is “killing”? Casing death. How may that be executed? In any conceivable way. The thing is that the norm standing behind the prohibition is worded very broadly in order to accommodate the vast variety of chain of events resulting in death. In this perspective we do not have any hesitation to, at least prima facie, declare releasing an unprecedently lethal animal free in the populated area as one of the potential ways to cause others death. But of course, as every criminal lawyer perfectly is aware of – a chain of events connecting the cause with the result in its pure, empirical or ontological denomination does not satisfy the justice. In such a way 99 % of results could be attributed to an individual (which one, that is a separate question).

Causation

The concept of causation in criminal law introduces a set of positive (must be proven) as well as negative (if proven, negate the causation) prerequisites which have a legal character and thus limit the potentially unlimited scope of result attribution. They have different names in different legal systems, but the positive ones basically may be reduced to those three concepts:
  • infringement of a rule or safeguard principle (e.i. don’t use open fire at a gas station, stop on red lights),
  • foreseeability (what a reasonable, prudent person equipped with an extra knowledge accessible to the perpetrator would consider as foreseeable thus neither entirely extraordinary nor unexpected)
  • “but for” principle basically based on the sane notion that we need to verify if the act in question was actually the cause of the result (but for the open fire at the gas station there would not be any fire, but for his driving, through the red light these cars would not crash)
The doctrine and judiciary have figured out the way to handle the “but for” test, which stems from the contitio sine qua non. The issue was how far in the past should we back with our analysis of the cause? If a perpetrator was not conceived in the first place obviously, he would not have killed anyone. So did his parents cause the death?  This type of reasoning is called “regress towards infinity” (lat. regressus ad infinitum). In criminal law, in this perspective, we should only account for the causes which are prospective to the moment when the unacceptable danger starts. It is a legal prerequisite because the unaccepted danger is a purely normative evaluation. Let’s have an example:

A drives his car and does not stop on a red light before tracks. Train hits the car killing his passenger B.

How would the “but for” principle work? Definitely, if A left his home either 10 minutes earlier or 10 minutes later he would not have crossed the train path. But it does not help. Leaving home at the certain time is legally irrelevant. What we should be really interested are all the things that happened when the unacceptable risk occurred, meaning at the time of approaching to the red light. The law says that you should observe the color of the light and if it is red slow down till complete halt. This demanded behavior is supposed to reduce the risk of being hit by a train to 0.  Now in this narrowed scenario, we examine the rules-breaking behavior of A. “But for” his continuation of driving despite the red light in the contexts of a train approaching the intersection, the crash would have never occurred. So we pretty much know when to stop going in the past. But what with the opposite direction? How far ahead with result attribution shall we proceed.

"But for", proximate cause - is it enough?

Now, back to the dinosaur scenario… The crucial issue in question is how far in the future shall we look and decide about an individual’s criminal liability? We all have some basic intuition that releasing most lethal animals there are into the populated area infringes the safeguard rules stemming from the law (don’t do harm) and it is quite foreseeable for dinosaur experts as Owen and Claire what T-Rex, Velociraptor and Allosaurus are capable of (we have seen the first movie and the series itself). When the Bad Guy was devoured on the premises of the mansion we had no doubts that it was solely because the hungry, angry dinosaurs were walking around quite unattended and unstoppable.  The guy would not have become a snack “but for” the release (provided nobody presses the button, dinosaurs perish from the toxic gas). So, this is the toughest part – we may clearly establish the safeguards infringement, the foreseeability of high degree of what would happen, and the but-for test is pretty much met. However, we know that there will be almost certainly incidents of dinosaurs attacking and killing humans in the future. How far in the future we should worry about? Criminal law has developed the “proximate cause” filter which as a concept is designed to eliminate too remote results from being attributed to the initial perpetrator. Many times, it intertwines with the foreseeability as such. But this is not the case here. Model Penal Code (apart from all criticism brought by P. Robinson) provided at least some basic intuition. In section 2.03 it is required that “result (…) is not too remote or accidental in its occurrence to have a just bearing on the actor’s liability or on the gravity of his offense”. So, there is no one general answer what is too remote or accidental, but it depends strongly on the result as an element of a particular crime. The more severe the crime is, probably more remote happenings shall be attributed to the person. In the dinosaur case – surely all of the killings done instantly by the reptiles at the premises of the mansion (guests, security guards, the bad guy, etc.) without any doubt may be considered as proximate. I think that also those injuries and deaths that happen before the general public is warned by the officials that a bunch of dangerous animals are on the loose and pose a deadly peril to everybody within a certain perimeter. However, after some time we may be sure that particular authorities will engage and start a widespread hunt (as it happens when a snake or other dangerous animal runs free where it is not supposed to). What if they do not manage to deal with all the animals within a reasonable time or the dinosaurs hide (or are satisfied with a regular game)? It seems like a fair and just compromise to diminish the proximity of the results proportionally to the engagement of the authorities and development of new safety rules for individuals living in potentially dangerous areas. At some point, there must be a break in legal attribution. Remember – we debate solely on the legal perspective. Thus the law may by its regulation cease the scope of criminal law operation. The phrase “too remote” seems to be in order.

Intentional or not?

What also may be quite important to Owen and Claire is whether they will be liable for murder or unintentional causing of death (manslaughter?). It also seems like a tough one. They definitely did not desire to have the dinosaurs kill anyone but come on! They must have at least see the extremely high probability of such a development of events and did nothing to minimize it. They accepted that scenario. It was definitely within their contemplation. I think the shorter timeline from the release the more facts may convince us that those deaths are intentional. However, if we are temporally far from the cause and heading towards the limits of proximity, it is conceivable to deem the intent to be gone (too many additional, unrelated and not fully contemplated facts accumulate as time lapses).   As you may see even a really stupid movie may bring a great case for fundamental criminal law deliberations ;-)
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“Oh, pardon”! Royal prerogative in the 21st-century republic. On courts and governments.
2018-04-04 at 13:37 0

Last resort

Presidential power of pardon isn’t something unique even in modern republics. This genetically royal prerogative is vested in the hands of a country’s chief executive. It serves as a last resort when criminal law system has no other means of flexibility. I remain a little bit indifferent about that power as such, but what seems interesting is its scope, mainly considering the separation of powers or checks and balances principle. Many papers have been devoted to that topic (see historical outline presented in W.F. Duker, “The President’s Power to Pardon: A Constitutional History” William and Mary Law Review vo. 18, issue 3). Of course, depending on the country, the history and tradition of the pardon dispensing and its subsequent enforcement in criminal cases, may be very developed or just the opposite – not even worth mentioning. There are some general pardon’s-scope-related issues that attract the attention of scholars:
  • Can a pardon be conditional?
  • Does pardon require acceptance by its beneficiary?
  • Can the president pardon himself?
  • Must pardon be individual, or may it take the form of amnesty?
  • Can a pardon be purely blanket in form?
  • Must the president indicate the concrete crime he pardons from?
  • Can the pardon be challenged before a court of law?
  • Can a pardon be issued before conviction and cease the investigation (or even prevent it from being commenced in the first place)?
All of them has already been addressed in various publications, but the last two are somehow exceptional. Why do you ask? Well, mostly because they are only superficially related to the pardon as such. They actually perfectly reflect the unique complexity of the constitutional legal order of a state. Just to clarify – I am not interested in criminal liability of a president for issuing a pardon and court’s (or other body’s) supervision over that. It is rather uncontroversial that in this perspective a president may be impeached for issuing pardons i.a. in exchange for bribes. That is a method of control over how they dispense their prerogatives and a sort of a safety anchor embedded in the system. But it is only a derivative matter.

Can it be reviewed?

The real question is the following – may the validity of a pardon be questioned? It actually combines the two issues I have emphasized – what happens if a pardon is granted before the investigation ends or during the first instance trial or during the appeal procedure? Would it be possible for the victim to question its effectiveness before the guilt is established by a proper and independent court of law in a due process? I can bet that our immediate intuition is that pardon is an absolute prerogative and belongs solely to the president who is at full liberty to use it as he finds it fit. But should it be like that? What with a right to a fair trial, separation of powers and court’s exclusive right to administer justice? And what about the victim and their rights? If the president pardons someone before the establishment of the perpetrator’s guilt – does the victim inherently lose their right to demand justice? It was clearly stated in an old US case Burdick vs. the U.S. in 1915 (236 U.S. 79) where it was indicated that pardon carries an imputation of guilt and acceptance a confession of it.

Symbolism of pre-emptive pardon?

Criminal law despite it’s more and more technical appearance is all about condemnation and symbolism. Declaration “guilty” sends a twofold message – one to the society that criminal acts are punished and publicly declared as wrong, the second to the perpetrator that they should be ashamed by what they did and that the public identifies it as blameworthy. Pardoning after that declaration does not, however, vacate the verdict of history (despite what lawyers of ex-Sheriff Joe Arpaio tried to accomplish). The symbolic function of a criminal conviction is fulfilled regardless of the subsequent lack or alleviation of penalty. But what if we deprive the society (incl. the victim) of that symbolism? Can we call the beneficiary of the pardon a criminal, perpetrator, offender, etc.? The above, let’s say purely academic doubts came to reality in Poland with an unexpected pardon of Mr. Mariusz Kamiński ex-chief of Anti Bribery Bureau (CBA). He was convicted to 3 years of deprivation of liberty for abuse of power as he had orchestrated illegal operations of the Bureau. Just after an appeal was lodged to the appellate court, president Andrzej Duda (his partisan colleague) pardoned him. It is important to know – before the appellate court decides about the appeal the conviction remains not final and the presumption of innocence still operates. The pardon formula was more or less “forgiveness and putting his acts into oblivion as well as discontinuing any pending criminal proceedings.” President added that he decided, in a way to release the administration of justice from that political case. Subsequently, Mr. Kamiński joined the new government as liaison officer supervising all intelligence service in the country. The appellate court indeed discontinued the proceedings due to the pardon which it had recognized as valid. But the casatory appeal was lodged to the Supreme Court that decided to hear the case in a broadened panel because of its specificity and uniqueness of the arising legal issue (I KZP 4/17). The question was narrowed down to one issue – can such pardon impact the ongoing criminal proceedings? The Supreme Court answered – no, it cannot. The court stressed that this presidential prerogative might be dispensed only towards individuals convicted in a final and valid ruling. Only such interpretation of Constitution in this aspect prevents from violation of other constitutional regulations of checks and balances. Thus, dispensing the pardon before the conviction is final and valid does not affect the ongoing procedure. It means that the appeal must be dealt with. The president may pardon a convict later on.

Constitution(s)

But as it was mentioned before – the devil is in the details. A big part of any debate over the scope of pardon in a particular system depends on the provision providing the prerogative in the first place. Let’s compare Polish an US constitutions to that extent. Art. 139 Polish Constitution The President of the Republic shall have the power of pardon. The power of pardon may not be extended to individuals convicted by the Tribunal of State. Art. 2 sec. 2 US Constitution The President shall (…) have the Power to grant Reprieves and Pardons for Offences against the United States, except in Cases of Impeachment. US constitution seems to be a little bit clearer narrowing the pardon only to offenses and their consequences. However, it was the judiciary that has provided that the power encompasses 5 types of clemency power: pardons, reprieves, commutations, amnesty and ability to remit fines and forfeitures (see K.H. Fowler, Limiting the Federal Pardon Power, Indiana Law Journal vol. 83 issue 4, p. 1652 Fn. 9). So obviously in some cases of dispensing of the power its validity or scope of it was challenged before the court. On the contrary, the reaction in the Polish case was almost hysterical on the part of president’s acolytes.  Some of them (including lawyers) stated that the Supreme Court went beyond its authority and was not simple empowered to examine presidential pardon. Indirectly they refused to acknowledge the ruling as valid.  Well, in a political heat – what can you do? But the most interesting issue that actually arises from the unique case is the practical debate on the separation of powers. The system turns out to be more dynamic that one previously may have thought. The line of argumentation of Polish Supreme Court was naturally elaborated and long but the crucial matter focused on was the ultimate need for reading the Constitution as a whole. Especially interpreting particular competences of different branches in a broader context of the general political system provided for by the Constitution. One must mention the following:
  • the system of government shall be based on the separation of and balance between the legislative, executive and judicial powers (art. 10)
  • the organs of public authority shall function on the basis of, and within the limits of, the law (art. 7)
  • the administration of justice shall be implemented by the Supreme Court, the common courts, administrative courts and military courts (art. 175)
  • everyone shall have the right to a fair and public hearing of his case, without undue delay, before a competent, impartial and independent court (art. 45)
It is an imminent feature of the pardon to somehow interfere with the administration of justice (altering the outcome of the trial), but there must be a red line drawn crossing which means stepping beyond one’s authority. If the pardon is an absolute prerogative of the president which may be freely dispensed by them, it can be inherently followed by the notion to make the president the sole and supreme interpreter of that right. In case of the US Constitution, the outcome of such an approach still is limited to those 5 clemency powers. Ok, we may imagine another – the Arpaio issue – president pardoning someone and demanding the court files to be destroyed. In Poland because of the very general wording of the relevant provision the ambit of president’s invention is potentially very broad. The first thing that immediately pops into my mind is tax-exemption. President within his power to pardon declares that someone need not to pay an overdue tax. Very general clemency. The only counterargument that may be raised is that no one ever understood the prerogative in that way. Could the Ministry of Public Finance challenge that decision? I would like to see that. But going back to criminal liability. The decision of our Supreme Court was not aimed to limit president in his rights but in a way indicated the red line and stated clearly – “let the courts do their job. When they are done with a case – then you may alleviate the consequences”. It is however interesting if one reads the US Supreme Court decisions on the temporal aspect of pardon. In an old case - Ex Parte Garland from 1866 (71 U.S. (4 Wall.) it was explained that “The power thus conferred is unlimited, with the exception stated. It extends to every offense known to the law, and may be exercised at any time after its commission, either before legal proceedings are taken, or during their pendency, or after conviction and judgment. This power of the President is not subject to legislative control. Congress can neither limit the effect of his pardon nor exclude from its exercise any class of offenders. The benign prerogative of mercy reposed in him cannot be fettered by any legislative restrictions.” Surprisingly despite the Gerald R. Ford’s Proclamation 4311 regarding Richard Nixon, there were no significant court cases on the preemptive pardon. It is interesting what would be the current position of the Court? But what seems to be quite obvious – despite any reservations present in the Polish case – it would be obvious that the Supreme Court is authorized to examine the details of a pardon in its operation in the field of administration of justice.

Creature of laws with divine power?

We must remember that AD 2018 presidential pardon may not be seen as some kind of a divine right of a monarch, but a traditional prerogative of a chief executive but embedded in a strict constitutional context of rights and obligations of both – state and citizens. If we vest the administration of justice in independent courts, we exclusively empower them with the right to decide about the law and individual liability.  One must not forget about the role of the victim which in different legal systems may vary, but it seems that the harmed party recently has become a significant figure in the criminal procedure. Another thing is the reasoning. Courts are obliged to provide the audience with their reasoning which may be later debated, evaluated and contribute to the evolution of legal culture. It is also a very basic obligation of the state to explain to the citizen why what happened to them. It is all about decency that has a very strong legal basis. How may we know that the decision of a public authority is not based on prejudice or some extralegal prerequisites? As Lord Acton once stated – “Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely.”
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Do’s and don’ts of criminal legislation. Law against „Polish death camps” and why it won’t work
2018-02-02 at 15:07 0

In the begining there is an idea...

Now and then legislators decide on drafting criminal provisions that are, despite all good intentions, bond to backfire. Backfire hard… But let’s start from the very beginning. It is quite clear for every criminal lawyer that legislator may criminalize behavior that is deemed wrong, harmful and undesirable. Criminalization of acts attacking specific legal values (recognized as particularly important both for the community in general and for the individual members of such community) derives its justification precisely from the special importance of these values and the need for their protection. In this sphere, legislators seem to have a sovereign, discretional power (except some rare cases when constitutional courts strike down particular statutes or its parts). Recently an interesting provision has been introduced by the Polish Parliament – one that has immediately led to not only controversy but also diplomatic tension between Israel and Poland. The ruling party has decided that there need to be a penalty for (what has been described as) defamatory statements claiming that during the WWII there were “Polish death camps”. Such statements are considered misleading because the use a geographical reference not only indicates the location of the camps but also (even inadvertently) implies the responsible parties (i.e., organizers). The issue in question seems to be rather well addressed nowadays. Despite all other endeavors of the Polish government and NGO’s aimed at eradicating such statements, the new measure for conducting such struggle weaponry is being developed. The really grave one – criminalization. Perhaps all governments consider issuing a ban on something like a magical way of solving any given problems. Sometimes such magic works, but this may not be the case. It reminds the American Dickey Amendment of 1996 providing direct ban on gun violence research (“none of the funds made available for injury prevention and control at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention may be used to advocate or promote gun control.”) as it eliminates a part of research and debate from the public discussion with a very questionable rationalization.

Then comes the draft text...

But let’s leave the politics for now. From the strictly legal point of view, the discussed Polish provisions may backfire in a way that (hopefully) has not intended by the drafters. So first, let’s see the body of the statute:

Art 55a of statue on Institute of National Remembrance (draft).

§1.  Whoever publicly and contrary to the facts attributes to the Polish Nation or Polish State responsibility or co-responsibility for Nazi-felonies committed by the Third Reich described in art. 6 of United Nations Charter of the International Military Tribunal - Annex to the Agreement for the prosecution and punishment of the major war criminals of the European Axis ("London Agreement") signed on the 8th of August 1945 or for other crimes constituting crimes against peace, humanity or war crimes or in another way flagrantly diminishes the responsibility of actual perpetrators, is subject to penalty of deprivation of liberty up to 3 years.

§2.  If the perpetrator acts unintentionally is subject to fine or penalty of limitation of liberty.

§3.  The perpetrator of the prohibited act referred to in §1 or §2 does not commit the crime if he has committed this act within his artistic or scientific activities.

...and its interpretation

Can you see the real scope of criminal liability? It is quite difficult with all these requisites and vague references. So let’s try to dissect the provision to get a glimpse of the potential difficulties that a citizen, prosecutor, and a court may have while assessing one’s behavior. 1)       publicly –  it refers to a manner of action that makes it possible for the information to be received by a larger, not necessarily specified, group of people (i.a. on Facebook, Twitter, on a website, in a newspaper, etc.). Thus, private discussions are excluded. 2)       contrary to the facts – now it gets really problematic. First of all, who decides what the facts are? Sometimes facts intrinsically contain a qualitative or quantitative evaluation (“a large number of victims”, “grave violence”, “sadistic” etc.). In practice, during the criminal proceedings, some kind of an expert witness will be appointed to determine whether the information presented in a public statement is well founded in contemporary historical knowledge. How can we be sure that this historian is not biased or, even more so, is legitimately able to justify his opinion?  And what if facts can not be established because of the early stage of research? To what extent personal memories or opinions on historical events can be verified in such manner - imagine a layman writing on Facebook: “Before my grandpa passed away, he told me that his hometown had been plundered not only by the Nazis but also by some of his neighbors, mainly from Kowalski family”. Remember that the special prosecutor’s unit in the Institute of National Remembrance is supposed to indict. They are subordinates of Ministry of Justice, and the entire board of the Institute is politically elected by parliament.  Approach to the history (general outlook as well as the methodology of research) is strongly dependent not on merits but on the current political situation. As we can see – the facts are everything. The harder to determine them the vaguer the potential scope of liability may be. Another aspect of the said element of the crime – can a various opinion on well-established facts be deemed as “contrary” to the latter? An example “Kowalski family just stood and did nothing; they laughed when my family was shot by the Nazis. They were aides by their passivity and amusement”. Imagine that we have undisputed information that in fact, only Nazis did the shooting. Is the opinion on the Kowalski family as passive supporters contrary to the facts or not? In criminal law, many times we differ in our opinions what was the role of individuals partaking in a criminal endeavor. Were they only facilitating or maybe they were in fact co-perpetrators?  That is another crucial issue that is difficult to determine unanimously – is a legal assessment of an act an element of the facts of a case or it is just normative (not ontological) aspect? 3)       Polish Nation – this one should be easy, right? The nation is defined as “a large body of people united by common descent, history, culture, or language, inhabiting a particular state or territory” (oxfordictionaries.com). In its narrow literal sense, such a description fits only the entire community, not individuals. Now compare those two statements in the context that there is a noncontroversial establishment of facts that there were only Nazis in the area:
  1. a) “Polish people helped Nazis to plunder our hometown.”
  2. b) “Kowalski family helped Nazis to plunder our hometown.”
If one uses more general term due to the lack of knowledge of the name of the facilitators, does it imply the Nation as a whole? If so, in a case of uncertainty of personal data opposite to the nationality, shall one rather remain silent? Or maybe one should even make up a fake family name to immunize themselves? It does not sound rational. 4)       Polish State – another obvious element to interpret, isn’t it? The state means “the civil government of a country” (oxfordictionaries.com). Ok, but here is the question – do the actions of public officials translate into state’s actions? What should be a valid criterion for differentiation? If a ministry (secretary) within their authority and autonomy undertake some actions will it burden a state as a whole? Imagine a statement (contrary to undisputed facts) “Polish police helped Nazis to plunder my hometown.” Does it allow to claim that the responsibility burdens the State?  What level of decision making is required? 5)       responsibility or co-responsibility – here is one issue of pure criminal law. What level of participation constitutes a threshold? Passivity? The subsequent gain of a benefit? Providing general information? How may we determine the causal link between the action of the State or a Nation and an atrocity in question? Without any help from the legislator, we should remain on those complicity forms provided in international criminal law. Of course, it won't resolve problems regarding the proper establishment of a perpetrator (see above) but if we succeed we may have some legal tools to assess liability. 6)       or for other crimes constituting crimes against peace, humanity or war crimes – this is interesting. From a linguistic point of view, this part is independent from the first half of the sentence, so it is not limited to the WWII. It means that one may not deliver public statements not only regarding Holocaust (which is the core issue of beforementioned diplomatic struggle) but any activity of Polish Nation or State. Period. Not to mention that the definition of war crimes or crimes against humanity has developed and used to contain different elements recognized by the international law of the  50’s,  90’s and currently (see  D. Luban „A Theory of Crimes Against Humanity, Yale Journal of International Law 2004 pp. 95-97 and Draft Code of Crimes against the Peace and Security of Mankind with commentaries 1996 p. 47). 7)       in another way flagrantly diminishes the responsibility – another very vague element. Flagrantly is interpreted as the grave, extraordinary and transparent at first glance. That means any, even untruthful allocation of fault is excluded unless it is indeed flagrant. But as it was indicated above, politics regarding history is based on emotion. Historians and journalists not to mention laymen do not share the same sensitivity so that they may evaluate information quite different. Can there be an objective threshold achieved? One may doubt it. Moreover, this part of the provision is logically separated from its the first part, so it provides a general basis for liability on the erroneous allocation of fault regarding any crimes constituting crimes against peace, humanity or war crimes, not only those (falsely) attributed to the Polish Nation. One would be punished if i.a. claimed that Hutu tribe in Rwanda did not commit all those documented atrocities. Last but not least. The provision shows one more legislative downside – dyssynchronization of terminology regarding international law. It was mentioned above in the pt 6) that the concept of crimes against humanity evolved and its most up-to-date meaning provided in the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court   differs significantly from that presented in United Nations Charter of the International Military Tribunal - Annex to the Agreement for the prosecution and punishment of the major war criminals of the European Axis. The latter included the requirement that an act was committed in time of war or in connection  with crimes against peace or war crimes. This is not the definition anymore.

Unintentional lying?

However, the real peril stems from §2. What is “unintentionally” according to Polish criminal law? One without having an intent of commission of a prohibited act commits it due to non-compliance with carefulness required in the given circumstances, although he has foreseen or might have foreseen the possibility of its commission. As it can be noticed it is sufficient to establish that there is a trustworthy source of historical knowledge one was not familiar with while presenting their statement. Or it is also a crime when one erroneously assesses the allocation of fault and flagrantly diminishes one party’s responsibility. Should have known/might have foreseen is a sort of a killer requirement.

Academic debate will be debatable?

It seems that to limit the scope of application of the provision and exclude academic research, and artistic performance §3 has been introduced. The thing is that the prosecutor would have discretion in evaluating the artistic aspects of, e.g., a documentary film. The situation of an academic may be even worse – his capability to conduct research may be questioned by a prosecutor supported by another historian. But this does not exhaust the problem. Notice that there is no mention of education or journalism. Artists and academic can be wrong but journalists and teachers must not? Although the provision is in the drafting stage, it is a piece of very poorly written legislation. Either we interpret it broad that it would essentially kill any public discussion on history or in a narrow way that makes it inapplicable. One way or another this is a good example of how not to legislate.  
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